First thing here is the given function is not one-one. As $$f(1)=1=f(2).$$ Hence for this function inverse does not exist. But, like we do for trigonometric functions, we can restrict it to a smaller domain in which it is one-one and hence calculate its inverse in that domain.
But here the function is so complicated that we may not be able to write its inverse explicitly, like we don't know what is inverse of $cos(x)$ explicitly only we write it as $\arccos(x)$ and we can graph it.
Like we know the graph of the inverse function of $y=f(x)$ is obtained by reflecting it through $y=x$ line which is implicitly $x=f(y)$ so here it will be $$x=1+(y-2)\ln y$$ and you can plot it by help of any graphing calculator(one is Geogebra)