I am reading A Mathematical Introduction to Logic by Herbert B. Enderton. The following is an excerpt and my question pertains to the lemma below, but I provided additional information preceding the lemma, so that it appears in context.
We define $n$-tuples recursively by
$$\big
= \big<\big , \, x_{n+1}\big>$$ for $n>1$. [...] define also $\big
= x$; the preceeding equation then holds also for $n=1$. $S$ is a finite sequence (or string) of members of $A$ iff for some positive integer $n$, we have $S = \big
$ where each $x_i \in A$. The segment of the finite sequence $S$ is a finite sequence
$$\big
\enspace \textrm{where} \enspace 1 \leq k \leq m \leq n$$ If $\big
= \big $, then it does not in general follow that $m = n$. But we claim that $m$ and $n$ can be unequal only if soe $x_i$ iss itself a finite sequence of $y_j$'s, or the other way around. Lemma 0A Assume that $\big
= \big $. Then $x_1 = \big $. PROOF. We use induction on $m$. If $m=1$, the conclusion is immediate. For the inductive step, assume that $\big
= \big $. Then the first components of this ordered pair must be equal: $\big = \big $. Now apply the inductive hypothesis.
Quetsions.
How are $k$ and $m+k$ related to each other in the lemma? Initially, I thought they satisfied the inequality $1\leq k \leq m \leq n$ provided in the definition of a segment above, but I want to make sure.
Honestly, I don't understand what the lemma is claiming or what makes it useful. Would someone explain to me what this lemma means?
I've been thinking about this for a couple of days, and would like some instruction.
Thanks.