I am calculating the value of $\lim_{n\to\infty}(1-\frac{1}{n^x})^n$, where $x>0$. Here is my idea: let $z=n^x$, then $z$ tends to infinity as $n$ tends to infinity. Then $$\lim_{n\to\infty}(1-\frac{1}{n^x})^n=\lim_{z\to\infty}(1-\frac{1}{z})^{\log_{x}{z}}=\lim_{z\to\infty}((1-\frac{1}{z})^z)^\frac{\log_{x}z}{z}=\lim_{z\to\infty}(e^{-1})^0=1$$.
I'm not sure if the second to last equality holds.
Thanks for leablood's comment, I made a mistake. If $z=n^x$, then $n=z^{1/x}$.