First of all, even though $f$ may take values in $\Bbb R^3$ and this wouldn't change anything significant in the proof, I am almost sure that $f$ is supposed in fact to take values in $\Bbb R$ - it's probably a typo.
Next, consider the change of variable $y = x + \epsilon u$ with $u \in B_1(0)$. This gives us
$$\int \limits _{B_\epsilon(x)} f(y) \ \Bbb dy = \int \limits _{B_1(0)} f(x + \epsilon u) \epsilon^n \ \Bbb du$$
and
$$\textrm {Vol} (B_\epsilon(x)) = \int \limits _{B_\epsilon(x)} 1 \ \Bbb dy = \int \limits _{B_1(0)} 1 \cdot \epsilon^n \ \Bbb du = \epsilon^n \ \textrm {Vol} (B_1(0)) ,$$
which taken together give
$$\lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \frac 1 {\textrm {Vol} (B_\epsilon(x))} \int \limits _{B_\epsilon(x)} f(y) \ \Bbb dy = \lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \frac 1 {\textrm {Vol} (B_1(0))} \int \limits _{B_1(0)} f(x + \epsilon u) \ \Bbb du = \frac 1 {\textrm {Vol} (B_1(0))} \int \limits _{B_1(0)} f(x) \ \Bbb du = \\
\frac 1 {\textrm {Vol} (B_1(0))} \textrm {Vol} (B_1(0)) \ f(x) = f(x) .$$
In the above I have used the fact that $f$ is continuous, therefore $\lim_{\epsilon \to 0} f(x + \epsilon u) = f(x)$ and a variation of Lebesgue's dominated convergence theorem (the functions $x \mapsto f(x + \epsilon u)$ are dominated by $\sup _{y \in B_r(x)} |f(y)|$ for all $0 < \epsilon