Because at most, we can only have 1 ball in each box, we know that the partition we will be working with is $1+1+1+1+1$.
I know that if we take away the rule of at most 1 ball per box, the answer would be $8^5$ ways to distribute the balls to the boxes, but i'm not sure how to calculate this.
At first, my thought is to take $8^5$ and subtract every other scenario where a box has more than one ball, but I feel like that would take longer than just counting how many will have one each?
EDIT: The balls and boxes are both identical.