Imagine I were to toss a coin, so that
- if it is tails, I will toss again.
- if it is heads, I stop the game.
It is clear that if I would to play the game forever the probability of me tossing tails over and over again tends to $0$, because $\lim\limits_{n \rightarrow \infty}{\frac{1}{2^{n}}} = 0$ and therefore the game terminates. My question is if it would still be correct to say that the game terminates after a finite number of tosses, for the reason that after a finite number of tosses the probability still gets smaller than every $\epsilon>0$ (if i get it right).
This is just confusing me for a while now and I would appreciate a detailed explanation.
Thx in advance!