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Intuitively I think $P(A|B,C) = P(A|B)$ if $C$ is independent of $A$.

But is there formal proof for this? Or is my intuition wrong?

1 Answers 1

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Your intuition is wrong unfortunately.

Hint: consider throwing a fair coin two times (independently) and the events :

  • $A$: On the first throw you get heads
  • $C$: On the second throw you get heads
  • $B$: On both throws you get heads or on both throws you get tails.
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    great example! Thank you2017-01-30