Intuitively I think $P(A|B,C) = P(A|B)$ if $C$ is independent of $A$.
But is there formal proof for this? Or is my intuition wrong?
Intuitively I think $P(A|B,C) = P(A|B)$ if $C$ is independent of $A$.
But is there formal proof for this? Or is my intuition wrong?
Your intuition is wrong unfortunately.
Hint: consider throwing a fair coin two times (independently) and the events :