If I have open sets $U$ and $V$ in a space $X$ $$U \subset V \subset X,$$ does it imply that the closure of $U$ is still included in $V$?
If yes, I would like to know why and if not, what would be sufficient conditions for this to hold.
If I have open sets $U$ and $V$ in a space $X$ $$U \subset V \subset X,$$ does it imply that the closure of $U$ is still included in $V$?
If yes, I would like to know why and if not, what would be sufficient conditions for this to hold.
$(0,1)\subset (0,2)$ but $[0,1]$ the closure of $(0,1)$ is not contained in $(0,2)$.
Simplest way to see why it is false is to take $U=V$