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Will the rolling of Six fair dice, one after another, give me $\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^6$? I could not figure out the answer of second one.

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    What is the chance of getting a 2 with a fair dice?2017-01-29
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    The second one is also $\frac{1}{6^6}$. What's so special about $1$ or $2$? They both have the same probability of coming up on a fair roll of the dice.2017-01-29
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    @Student it is 1/6?2017-01-29
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    So, you could find the answer for 111111... How did you do that? And could you apply it to 111222?2017-01-29
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    @астонвіллаолофмэллбэрг Thanks for reply. So you mean the probability of getting 111111 and 111222 when we roll six dice, ONE AFTER ANOTHER is same. That is (1/6)^62017-01-29
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    Just for clarification: I hope you don't mean to say the outcome has three $1'$s and three$2'$s because then more possibilities will occur.2017-01-29
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    @Student thanks for reply. This is what I am thinking. Chance of getting 1 in each roll is 1/6. For six dice, rolled one after another it should be (1/6)^6? Am I right?2017-01-29
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    Yes. However, this is only the case if we want that specific order! If the order does not matter, there are more ways in having three 2's and 1's with 6 throws2017-01-29
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    @AnuragA. Exactly, you are right. The order is 111222. No other possibilities. Thanks for Reply.2017-01-29
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    @Student. Exactly. The required order is only 111222.2017-01-29
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    @Acrobat Exactly.2017-01-29

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