From my point of view I think it isn't but I'm not sure. Here is what I thought:
$(0,1) \bigcap \mathbb{Q}$ is basically $$ A = \{ \frac a b \in \mathbb{Q} \mid \frac a b \gt 0 \text{ and } \frac a b \lt 1 \}$$ and $\forall x \in A$ and $\forall R \gt 0$ there is a $q \in \mathbb{R} \setminus \mathbb{Q}$ such that $q \in \mathcal{B}_R(x)$ (i.e., open ball of center $x$ and radius $R$), so $\forall x \in A, \mathcal{B}_R(x) \nsubseteq \mathbb{Q}$ so $A \notin $ standard topology of $\mathbb{R}$. Conclusion, $A$ is not an open set in the standard topology of $\mathbb{R}$.
Is that correct ?