I have an equation of the form:
$$∑_{n=1}^{∞} a_{n}(x)=0 \tag{*}$$
where $a_{n}(x)$ are real non constant functions in $x$ for all $n≥1$. Assume that $a_{n}(x)≠0$ for all $n≥2$. Assume also that $a_{1}(x)=0$ for some $x=a$.
Then equation $(*)$ becomes $$∑_{n=2}^{∞} a_{n}(x)=-a_{1}(x)$$ My question is: Can we deduce that the only solution of $(*)$ is $x=a$. Any conterexample is very welcome.