$R$ is a commutative ring with unity and characteristic $P$. Where $P$ is a prime. $F$ is a function mapping each element of $R$ into its $P$-th multiplicative power. I have proven that $F$ is a homomorphism from $R$ to $R$. So far, I have proved that $F$ is injective when $R$ is an integral domain. Is it surjective too in this case? Is it an automorphism when $R$ is not an integral domain? Kindly provide me with some hints.
Is the mapping an automorphism?
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ring-theory
3 Answers
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Consider the ring $F_p[X]$ of polynomial functions defined on the finite field $F_p$, $f(X)\rightarrow f(X)^p$ is not surjective.
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The map $x \mapsto x^p$ is called the Frobenius endomorphism.
The map may be an automorphism even when $R$ is not an integral domain.
For instance, for $R=\mathbb F_p \times \mathbb F_p$, the map is the identity.
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0Thanks, I could use examples like these. – 2017-01-29
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In the case of $\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$ the function $x \mapsto x^p$ is an automorphism since by Fermat's little theorem we have $a^p \equiv a \bmod p$ for any integer $a$ and prime $p$.