Example 2.21, p. 50. of Boyd's Convex Optimization establishes conditions for the solvability of strict linear inequalities, where, at one point the book basically says that
the inequality $\forall y > 0, λ^\top y ≥ \mu$ implies that $\mu ≤ 0$, and $ λ \succcurlyeq 0$...
Can anybody help me see why?
Below attached is the whole context of my question:
