I was calculating an integral that I thought it'd be easy however it turned out very weird. I couldn't figure out so I'm looking for some help.
$$\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \int_{2\cos\theta}^{2}2r{\sqrt{4-r^2}} \,dr\,d\vartheta$$
Then, I solved the inner integral with respect to r. I got the following by simplifying
$\int {2\over3}(4-(2\cos\theta)^2)^{3\over2} $
$\int {2\over3}(4-4\cos^2\theta)^{3\over2} $
$\int {2\over3}(4(1-\cos^2\theta))^{3\over2} $
$\int {2\over3}(4\sin^2\theta)^{3\over2} $
${16\over3}\int(\sin^3\theta) $
Then, with simple substitution, I got $\int(\sin^3\theta) d\theta $ = $1/3\cos^3\theta-\cos\theta+C$. When I plug in my end points $\pi/2$ and $-\pi/2$, I get zero. However, it can't be zero because it's a legit solid piece. So, I tried to solve with wolphram alpha for $\sin^3\theta$ and my integrand before simplification, I got followings:
I also found this one for the integration of $\sin^3x$
So, I'm super confused how come $\sin^3x$ got two different answers???They seem the same but how come they are completely different functions? Where do I make mistake to solve the original problem?
thank you



