The role of $t$ at the end of of the proof of Theorem 1.21 of Rudin's Principles of Mathematical Analysis (page 10 in Ed. 3) is not clear to me and I am not sure how it is being used.
Rudin states in the proof
Assume $y^n > x$. Put
$$k = \frac{y^n-x}{ny^{n-1}}.$$
Then $0 < k < y$. If $ t \ge y - k$ we conclude that
$$ y^n - t^n \le y^n - (y-k)^n < kny^{n-1} = y^n - x.$$
Thus $t^n > x$, and $ t \notin E$. It follows that $y-k$ is an upper bound of $E$.
Question 1: Why can't we simplify the proof by not introducing $t$ at all, and directly claiming that
$$ y^n - (y-k)^n \overset{(1)}{<} kny^{n-1} \overset{(2)}{=} y^n - x,$$
where inequality $(1)$ follows from the given identity $b^n-a^n < (b-a)nb^{n-1}$, and the equality $(2)$ follows from the definition of $k$? From here we can conclude that $(y-k)^n > x $, and thus $(y-k)^n \notin E$ and is an upper bound of $E$.
Question 2: When Rudin says "It follows that $y-k$ is an upper bound of $E$", what does this have to do with the immediately preceding sentence "Thus $t^n > x$, and $ t \notin E$"?