Given $$\tan\beta=\frac{n\sin\alpha\cos\alpha}{1-n\sin^2\alpha},$$ show that $\tan(\alpha-\beta)=(1-n)\tan\alpha$.
Now I used formula for $\tan(A-B)$ and then put value of $\tan\beta$ and so I am able to prove the answer, but I asked this question because I wanted to know if there are other ways to do it.
thanks