Suppose we have two sets of linearly independent vectors: $$\{\vec{u_1},\ldots,\vec{u_k}\},\{\vec{v_1},\ldots,\vec{v_{n-k}}\}$$ such that they span two mutually orthogonal hyper-planes. (i.e. $\vec{u_i}\cdot\vec{v_j}=0$ for all $i,j$) and also span $\mathbb{R}^n$
Then we can write any $\vec{x}\in\mathbb{R}^n$ with a change of basis $$\vec{x}=a_1\vec{u_1}+\cdots+a_k\vec{u_k}+b_1\vec{v_1}+\cdots+b_{n-k}\vec{v_{n-k}}$$
Or equivalently $$\vec{x}=U\vec{a}+V\vec{b}$$ where $U$ is $n\times k$, $V$ is $n\times n-k$, $\vec{a}=(a_1,\ldots,a_k)$, and $\vec{b}=(b_1,\ldots,b_{n-k})$
My question is given a full-rank linear transformation $T$ on $\mathbb{R}^n$, can $T$ always be split into two transformations on the hyper-planes spanned by $\{\vec{u_1},\ldots,\vec{u_k}\}$ and $\{\vec{v_1},\ldots,\vec{v_{n-k}}\}$? Specifically will there exist transformations $S, T$ such that $$T\vec{x}=U(R\vec{a})+V(S\vec{b})$$
Also will $S,T$ be linear? and how could you find them given an actual matrix?
Maybe for an example? $$ T= \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0 & 0 & \frac{1}{2} \\ 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$$ Where the hyper-planes are respectively the one spanned by the eigenvectors and that which is all vectors orthogonal to the eigenvectors. $$\{\vec{u_1}, \vec{u_2}\}\approx\{(.40,.32,.25,1),(-.75,1.12,-1.67,1)\}$$