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I have no clue on this one so I hope you can help me out on this one.

Let $x,y \ge 0 $ and $0 \lt n \le 1$. Then $$ (x+y)^n \le x^n +y^n$$

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    Divide by $y^n$ then remember (or prove) [Bernoulli's inequality](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bernoulli's_inequality).2017-01-27
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    Write the binomial expansion of the LHS, if you know how to for $n\in\Bbb R_{\ge 0}$, and compare both sides.2017-01-27
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    $n$ doesn't look to be integer.2017-01-27
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    @DietrichBurde This case is not compatible with "no clue on this one".2017-01-27

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Since our inequality is symmetric, we can assume that $y\geq x$.

Also if $x=0$ so the inequality is obviously true.

Let $x>0$ and $y=tx$, where $t\geq1$.

Hence, we need to prove that $f(t)\geq0$, where $f(t)=t^n+1-(t+1)^n$.

But, $f'(t)=n\left(\frac{1}{t^{1-n}}-\frac{1}{(1+t)^{1-n}}\right)\geq0$.

Thus, $f(t)\geq f(1)=0$ and we are done!

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    Nice Arquady, can we prove it without derivative, If yes then plz explain here, Thanks2017-01-28
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    @juantheron See my proof here: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1990936 I think we can understand convexity and Karamata without derivative.2017-01-28