I want to determine whether the following function is differentiable at $x=0$:
$f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, $x \mapsto \frac{{\sin}^2(x)}{x^2}$ for $x\neq 0$ and $1$ for $x=0$.
Clearly, this function is continuous $\forall x \in \mathbb{R}$ and the derivative exists $\forall x \in \mathbb{R}\backslash\{0\}$. I assume that this function is differentiable at $x=0$ with the derivative $ \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h} =0$.
By using the definition of the derivative I come to the point where I´m stuck with the following expression: $\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{\frac{{\sin}^2(h)}{h^2}-1}{h} = \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{{\sin}^2(h)-h^2}{h^3}$. I know that $lim_{h\to 0}\frac{\sin(h)}{h} = 1$ and my guess is that I have to work with $g(x):= \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{\sin(h)}{h}$ and $f(x):=x^2$, so $f(g(x)) = f(1) = 1$. Any help would be appreciated.
Thank you, Hofmusicus