Your map is surjective if and only if the ideals $(q_i)$ are pairwise coprime (Proposition 1.10 ii, in Atiyah and MacDonald). Try to prove it for $n=2$ first, that is: if $I,J$ are ideals of $R$ such that $I+J=R$, then $R \to R/I \oplus R/J$ is surjective.
Here is a hint. Write $1=i+j, i\in I, j \in J$, and then, given $([x]_I,[y]_J)$, consider
$$r \;:=\; xj+yi \;=\; x(1-i) + y(1-j).$$
When $n \geq 3$, fix $i$ between $1$ and $n$, and let $u_{i,j} \in (q_i), v_{i,j} \in (q_j)$ such that $u_{i,j} + v_{i,j} = 1$, when $i \neq j$.
Then, given $([x_1]_{(q_1)}, \dots, [x_n]_{(q_n)})$,
you can define
$$r \;:=\;
x_1 a_1 + \dots +
x_n a_n
$$
with $1-a_i \in (q_i)$ such that $a_i \in \bigcap_{j \neq i} (q_j)$, for instance
$$
a_i \;=\; \prod_{j \neq i} v_{i,j}
\;=\; \prod_{j \neq i} (1-u_{i,j})
\;\equiv\; \prod_{j \neq i} 1 \equiv 1 \pmod{(q_i)}
$$
(If $R$ is a PID, then any non-zero prime ideal is maximal, so $(q_i) + (q_j) = R$ as long as $i \neq j$ and the $(q_i)$'s are prime ideals. Therefore you can apply what I've said in the previous paragraph.)