Is the series $$\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}(-1)^n\frac{(\ln n)^a}{n}$$ converges, where $a\in \mathbb{R}$?
Now it is evident that we need to use alternating series test. So we need to show that $a_n=\frac{(\ln n)^a}{n}$ monotonically decreasing and $\lim a_n=0$.
Let $f(x)=\frac{(\ln x)^a}{x}$. Now $f'(x)=\frac{(\ln x)^{a-1}(a-\ln x)}{x^2}<0$ if $x>e^a$. So for $x>e^a$, $f(x)$ is monotonically decreasing.
Now how can I show that the limit $a_n$ is $0$ as $n\to \infty$? Please help me to solve this last piece in the problem. Thank you.