I understand the concept behind Lagrange multipliers and the standard arguments used to prove it. But today I tried to derive it explicitly, and am having trouble with it. Let $f$ be the function we are trying to minimize under the constraint $g=0$. We know that if $x$ is a local minimizer, than $$\nabla f \cdot v =0$$ for any $v$ in the tangent space of the manifold defined by the constraint, as $$\nabla g \cdot v =0$$
Now let $u$ be an arbitrary vector. We can formulate its projection onte the said tangent space by $$v=u-\frac{\nabla g\cdot u}{\nabla g\cdot\nabla g}\nabla g$$ where $\frac{\nabla g\cdot u}{\nabla g\cdot\nabla g}$ is the scalar projection. We name it $\lambda$ for convenience. Thus $$v=u-\lambda \nabla g$$ This means that the minizier satisfies $$\nabla f \cdot v =\nabla f\cdot(u-\lambda\nabla g)=0$$ $$\nabla f\cdot u=\lambda\nabla f\cdot\nabla g$$ Which is obviously not the correct form.
Could someone please correct me? I am aware of how the proof usually goes, but I would like something of this form, where the equality is expressed through an arbitrary direction $u$ on both sides, something like $$\nabla f\cdot u =\lambda\nabla g\cdot u$$ for an arbitrary direction $u$.
EDIT:
I am aware of the argument meantioned by littleO in the comment bellow. But I want to derive an expression like specified in the last equation, $\nabla f\cdot u =\lambda\nabla g\cdot u$, for an arbitrary direction $u$, through something similar to the third expression $v=u-\frac{\nabla g\cdot u}{\nabla g\cdot\nabla g}\nabla g$.