Consider the following theorem:
Let $p \in \mathbb{Z}$ and $\alpha \in (0,1)$. Then $n^p \alpha^n \rightarrow 0$.
To prove this, we will first note that $$ r_n := \frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} = \frac{(n+1)^p\alpha^{n+1}}{n^p\alpha^n} = \left( 1 + \frac 1 n \right)^p \alpha \rightarrow \alpha < 1 $$ by the Algebra of Limits. Thus far, I understand this proof without problem. However, it now goes on to say that, from the above, we can tell that the sequence is strictly decreasing. This is the part of the proof that I do not understand. How does the above tell us that the sequence is decreasing?