Give a direct proof of $(i),(ii)$ and $(iii)$. $$(i)\qquad \forall\,x\in\Bbb Q\quad\exists\,y\in\Bbb Q : x^2=y$$ Let $$x=\frac pq\,\in\Bbb Q:\,p,q\in \Bbb Z \wedge q \not = 0$$ $$x^2=\left(\frac pq\right)\left(\frac pq\right)=\frac {p^2}{q^2} =y $$
$$\therefore \quad y=\frac {p^2}{q^2}\in\Bbb Q$$
Then, $$(ii)\qquad\forall\,x,y\in\Bbb Q\quad\exists\,z\in\Bbb Q : x+y=z$$
Let $$x=\frac {p}{q}\,\in\Bbb Q:\,p,q\in \Bbb Z \wedge q \not = 0$$ $$y=\frac {r}{s}\,\in\Bbb Q:\,r,s\in \Bbb Z\wedge s \not = 0$$ $$x+y =\frac {p}{q}+ \frac {r}{s} = \frac {sp+qr}{qs}=z$$ $$\therefore \quad z= \frac {sp+qr}{qs}\in\Bbb Q \iff p, q, r, s \in \Bbb Z$$
Are these two proofs correct?
Also, By giving a proof of both of these statements, does it also prove that $$(iii) \qquad \forall\,x,y\in\Bbb Q\quad\exists\,z\in\Bbb Q : x^2+y^2=z$$ is true and is the following $$((i)\wedge (ii))\Rightarrow (iii)$$ the correct way to express such a statement in propositional logic terms?