As Daniel Fischer said, the statement is false. The Fourier transform of $f$ is real-valued if and only if $f(-x) = \overline{f(x)}$ for almost all $x\in\mathbb R$.
To prove the necessity, apply the inverse Fourier transform to a real function $g(\xi)$: ignoring normalization constants, the computation goes as
$$
\check g(-x) = \int e^{i(-x)\xi }g(\xi)\,d\xi
= \int \overline{e^{ix\xi }}g(\xi)\,d\xi
= \overline{\int e^{ix\xi } g(\xi)\,d\xi } = \overline{\check g(x)}
$$
The proof of sufficiency is similar: if $f(-x) = \overline{f(x)}$ holds, then
$$
\overline{\hat f(x)} =
\overline{\int e^{-ix\xi} f(x)\,dx}
=\int e^{ix\xi} f(-x)\,dx = \int e^{-ix\xi} f(x)\,dx = \hat f(x)
$$
where the second-to-last step is the chang of variable, $x\mapsto -x$.