Looking through my current lecture notes, it states a theorem for existance and uniqueness, stating the following:
Consider a second order linear ODE of the form $$ y'' + p(x)y' + q(x)y = 0 $$ Now, if the real functions $p(x), q(x)$ are continuous on some interval $I$, given by $a \leq x \leq b$, then this equation has some general solution defined on the interval $I$. The notes then go on to say that for any $\alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{R}$ and any $x_{0} \in I$, there exists a solution to satisfy the below boundary conditions $$ y(x_{0}) = \alpha, y'(x_{0}) = \beta $$ This much I understand/accept, but the next part states that if the boundary conditions are given in the form $$ y(x_{1}) = y(x_{2}) = 0 $$ then we have a 'much less powerful theorem for proving that a nontrivial solution always exists'.
What exactly is meant by this, and why is this the case?