In one of our exercise classes, we had the following task:
Let $K$ be a number field of degree $n$ with ring of integers $O_K$. Let $M$ be a finite $\mathbb{Z}$-submodule of $K$ of rank $n$. Let $\alpha_1, \dotsc, \alpha_n$ be a $\mathbb{Z}$-basis of $M$. Show $d(\alpha_1, \dotsc, \alpha_n) \in \mathbb{Q}$.
In our solution we used the fact that $M$ as a finite $\mathbb{Z}$-submodule of $K$ is free and hence admits an integral basis, i.e. $\alpha_1, \dotsc, \alpha_n$ as a $\mathbb{Z}$-basis of $M$.
In the next step, the claim was that we immediately get that $\alpha_1, \dotsc, \alpha_n$ is a $\mathbb{Q}$-basis of $K$. I do understand that by a looking at the dimension of $M$ and $K$, we know that $\alpha_1, \dotsc, \alpha_n$ can be a generating set of $K$.
However, I do not understand how I can conclude that those $\alpha_i$ are linearly independent over $\mathbb{Q}$? (Of course, from $\alpha_1, \dotsc, \alpha_n$ a $\mathbb{Q}$-basis of $K$, you then get that $d(\alpha_1, \dotsc, \alpha_n) \in \mathbb{Q}$.)
Moreover, we later on in another exercise used that $e_1, \dotsc, e_n$ as a $\mathbb{Z}$-basis of $O_K$ is also a $\mathbb{Q}$-basis of $K$, which seems to follow the same line of argument...
Thank you for your answers!