$\sum\limits_{i=0}^\infty (\frac{1}{C})^n \dot \cos(\frac{(n+1)\pi}{a}) $
I was working with this sum and found that it converged (when C > 1) but was wondering how to find the exact value. By analyzing a few cases through WolframAlpha I found that the exact value was represented by the equation below.
$ \frac{C^2\sin(\frac{\pi}{a})}{C^2+1-2C\cos(\frac{\pi}{a})} $
I was hoping someone could point me towards deriving this answer, it would be greatly appreciated.