I am having trouble rigorously proving/disproving the following:
Let $S \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ and let $F$ be the set of the frontier points of $S$. Is it true that the set of frontier points of $F$ is $F$ itself?
I believe I have the general idea, and tried to prove it using a contradiction (assume there is a frontier point not in $F$, therefore it must contain points in $S$ and be in F), but as said I am not certain as to how to fill in the "in-between," as far as definitions, etc go.
I appreciate all and any help. Thank you kindly!