My professor said that $\langle p\rangle$ is an ideal of $R$; and in order to prove $L/\langle p\rangle L=(0)$ one must prove that $L=\langle p\rangle L$. The problem is: Since $L$ is a completely different set than $R$, how can I operate elements of $\langle p\rangle$ with elements of $L$?
I am trying to prove that every element of $L$ can be written as a finite sum $\sum a_il_i$ where $a_i\in \langle p\rangle$, $l_i\in L$. Is this the way you'd do it?
Thanks in advance
,$ but $\langle p\rangle. \qquad$
– 2017-01-24