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My professor said that $\langle p\rangle$ is an ideal of $R$; and in order to prove $L/\langle p\rangle L=(0)$ one must prove that $L=\langle p\rangle L$. The problem is: Since $L$ is a completely different set than $R$, how can I operate elements of $\langle p\rangle$ with elements of $L$?

I am trying to prove that every element of $L$ can be written as a finite sum $\sum a_il_i$ where $a_i\in \langle p\rangle$, $l_i\in L$. Is this the way you'd do it?

Thanks in advance

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    Proper notation is not $

    ,$ but $\langle p\rangle. \qquad$2017-01-24

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    Thanks! I didn't know that!2017-01-24

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Operate with the class of $p$ modulo $q^s$: $$\langle p\rangle L=\langle p\rangle\cdot R/\langle q^s \rangle=(\langle p\rangle+\langle q^s \rangle)/\langle q^s \rangle$$ Now, as $p$ and $q$ are distinct, the ideals $\langle p\rangle$ and $\langle q^s \rangle$ are coprime, i.e. $\langle p\rangle+\langle q^s \rangle=R$, so that $\langle p\rangle L=L$.

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    Wow, thank you! I was trying to go deep into the definition of quotient... the notation was killing me. Your strategy was very smart!2017-01-24