We note $(n!)_p$ is the simplified factorial by $p$,
it is the largest integer, prime with $p$ and which divides $n!$.
Is it true : for any $n\in \mathbb N$ such that $n> 1$ and $p$ prime integer : $$(n!)_p | (p-1)\times (p^2-1) ... (p^n-1)$$
Source : les dattes à Dattier