Question: https://gyazo.com/03dbf19bc8af2d526003aa04566a8cd1
If there exist $m , M \in R^+$ such that $m \leq f(x) \leq M \forall x \in [a,b]$, then $$m(b-a) \leq \int_{a}^{b} f(x)dx \leq M(b-a)$$ - The Integral Inequality property
We would just need to find m and M to prove this:
a = -1
b = 1
$m(2) = 2 = 1$
$M(2) = 2\sqrt{2} = \sqrt{2}$ So now we know that m = 1 and $M = \sqrt{2}$, then the property is true
Is my answer correct?