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Let $f,g,h$ be polynomials over a field $F$.

$\forall t \in F$, $$f(x) = g(x)h(x) \iff f(x+t) = g(x+t)h(x+t)$$

The reverse direction is trivial. The forward is also obvious but I'm just wondering if there is a way to rigorously show it.

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    Can't you just substitute $x=u+t$?2017-01-24

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Both directions follow from substitution! No more work is necessary than that.

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    @Phantom Does this answer your question?2017-01-25