Let's proceed by a proof by contradiction. Assume that $x\neq 0$ and that $x^2=0$, but then $x^{-1}$, the unique real number such that $xx^{-1}=x^{-1}x=1$, exists as $x\neq 0$ and so multiplying the second equality by $x^{-1}$ we have that
$$0=x^{-1}0=x^{-1}x^2=(x^{-1}x)x=1x=x$$
which gives the desired contradiction. Hence, by reductio ad absurdum, $x^2\neq 0$ whenever $x\neq 0$ as you want. Note that for any $y$, $y0=0$ since, by the distributive law, $y0=y(0+0)=y0+y0$ and so $y0=0$ after substracting $y0$ from both sides.
Using a similar argument, you can show that the product of two non-zero real numbers is non-zero. The crucial point of the proof is that if a real number $x$ is non-zero, i.e., $x\neq 0$, then you can divide by it, i.e., there exists its inverse $x^{-1}$.
EDIT: In view of the changes of the question, the version I saw I requested to prove that if $x\neq 0$, then $x^2$, I provide a prove of the fact that $x^2\neq 0$ implies $x\neq 0$. I let the above proof showing that $x\neq 0$ implies $x^2\neq 0$ just in case.
For showing that $x^2\neq 0$ implies $x\neq 0$, we apply again a proof by contradiction. So assume $x^2\neq 0$ and $x=0$, then $x^2=x0=0$ as noted in the above proof. This is a contradiction and thus the desired implication is proven. Note that in this case the essential property used is that any number multiplied by zero is zero.