Let $(U_{mn})_{1\leqslant m,n\leqslant \infty}$ be a family of i.i.d. random variables, each distributed as $\text{Exp}(1/2)$. Define $X_j=\min_{1\leqslant i\leqslant j} U_{ji}$, so that $X_j\sim \text{Exp}(j/2)$.
Tavaré claims (see bottom of pg. 22 here) that the sum
\begin{equation*}
L_n = \sum_{j=1}^{n-1} X_j \overset{d}{=} \max_{1\leqslant k\leqslant n-1} W_k,
\end{equation*}
where $(W_k)$ is another family of i.i.d. r.v.s each distributed as $\text{Exp}(1/2)$, and "$\overset{d}{=}$" denotes equality in distribution. The argument supposedly uses a coupling trick, but I have not been successful at thinking of one. Any hints or solutions are much appreciated!
Thanks in advance!