I am reading about calculating the integral of scalar curvature of manifolds which have conical singularities - that is, are locally products $\mathcal{C}_\alpha\times \Sigma$, where $\mathcal{C}_\alpha$ are cones with conical singularities of angle deficit $\alpha$. For example, Fursaev and Soloduhkin (1994) or Troyanov (1991) and I have something which is probably a rather trivial question.
Putting the singularity question aside for a moment, I want to make sure I understand how to calculate something like
$$\int_{M\setminus \Sigma}R,$$
where $\Sigma$ is a 2-dimensional manifold embedded in $M$ (which is higher dimensional, for my purposes we can take this to be a 4-manifold). Certainly, I agree with the statement
$$\int_\Sigma R=0$$
Because $\Sigma$ is a set of measure zero in $M$. And certainly as sets $M$ and $\Sigma$ we could write
$$\int_M R=\int_{M\setminus \Sigma}R + \int_{\Sigma}R$$
So I want to make sure that the following is correct:
$$\int_{M\setminus \Sigma}R=\int_{M} R.$$
Of course, in the context of the singularity papers above, you want to remove the singular set $\Sigma$ and integrate $R$ over only the domain in which it is smoothly defined, $M\setminus \Sigma$. But, if I am doing this on something like a sphere with constant curvature I want to make sure I can write something like
$$\int_{\mathbb{S}^4\setminus \Sigma}R=\int_{\mathbb{S}^4}R(\mathbb{S}^4)=V(\mathbb{S}^4)R(\mathbb{S}^4)$$
Rather than
$$\int_{\mathbb{S}^4\setminus \Sigma}R=R(\mathbb{S}^4)V(\mathbb{S}^4\setminus \Sigma).$$
Again, it seems to me that $V(\mathbb{S}^4)=V(\mathbb{S}^4\setminus \Sigma)$.