"$\textit{$f$ is differentiable at $a$, then $f$ is continuous at $a$}$"
This is the statement proven in my lecture notes, however I think the proof is wrong.
Recall $$\lim_{x\to a} f(x) = f(a)$$ Then we rearrange and have $$\lim_{x\to a} (f(x)-f(a)) =\lim_{x\to a} \left(\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}\right)(x-a) = \lim_{x\to a} \left(\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}\right)\lim_{x\to a}(x-a) = f'(a)\cdot 0 = 0$$
Why is this a proof of the above statement? Okay I understand that at the end we obtain zero so we can rewrite the term on the LHS as the "definition" of continuity. However we started exactly from the "definition" of continuity. Indeed we started from $\lim_{x\to a} (f(x)-f(a))$ which by Arithmetic of Limits is equal to the above. Hence we wanted to prove $A \implies B$ but we started from $B$ and we showed it works for $A$. This is a circular reasoning!