Let $x$ and $y$ be integers with $x \neq 0$. Prove that if $x^6+(x^2+y)^3$ is a perfect square, then $y \equiv 0 \pmod{x^2}$.
We can expand the given expression as $$x^6+(x^2+y)^3 = 2x^6+3x^4y+3x^2y^2+y^3 = (2x^2+y)(x^4+x^2y+y^2)=k^2,$$ for some integer $k$. Now assume $x \neq 0$. We proceed by contradiction. Let $y = mx^2+d$, where $0 < d \leq x^2-1$ for some $m$. Then the original equation is equivalent to $$((2+m)x^2+d)(x^4+mx^4+dx^2+(m^2x^4+2dmx^2+d^2))$$ and to $$((2+m)x^2+d)((1+m+m^2)x^4+(d+2dm)x^2+d^2).$$ This seemed like a computational way of solving this, but could we still solve it like this?