Let $\left(\Omega_i,\mathcal{A}_i,P_i\right)$ for $i=1,2$ a probability space and assume that $\mathcal{A}_1$ is independent of $\mathcal{A}_2$. Define the probability space $\left(\Omega,\mathcal{A},P\right)$ where $\Omega=\Omega_1\times\Omega_2$, $\mathcal{A}=\mathcal{A}_1\otimes\mathcal{A}_2$ and $P=P_1\times P_2$. Consider a random variable $X$ on $\left(\Omega,\mathcal{A},P\right)$. Why can we find r.v. $X_i$ defined on $\left(\Omega_i,\mathcal{A}_i,P_i\right)$ s.t. $X(\omega_1,\omega_2)=X_1(\omega_1)\cdot X_2(\omega_2)$ holds.
Furthermore i am interested, if the martingale property is transfered to $X_1$ and $X_2$: $X$ is a martingale $\Rightarrow$ $X_i$ is a $(\mathcal{A}_i,P_i)$-martingale.