I was looking at Cauchy's functional equation when I happened upon an interesting result.
Consider a differentiable function $f:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ with $f(1)=1$ and $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$.
With $x=y=0$, it follows that $f(0)=0$.
...and then I do something not so orthodox:
$$f(x+h)=f(x)+f(h)$$
$$f(x+h)-f(x)=f(h)=f(0+h)-f(0)$$
$$\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}h=\frac{f(0+h)-f(0)}h$$
as $h\to0$, we end up with, nicely,
$$f'(x)=f'(0)$$
Thus, $f(x)$ is linear, and interpolating with $f(0)=0$ and $f(1)=1$, we end up with
$$f(x)=x$$
just as suspected.
Now, I don't usually see this done with functional equations, using derivatives and all, so I was wondering 2 questions:
Is what I did ok, given the conditions on $f$?
Could someone produce an interesting scenario of when a hard to solve functional equation reduces nicely with derivatives? Thanks :-)