Problem: Use the Binomial Formula to show that if $n$ and $r$ are integers with $0 \leq r \leq n$, then $\binom{n}{r}=\binom{n}{n-r}$.
My attempt: I am using the general binomial expansion formula to establish the following.
$(n+r)^{n}=n^{n}+nn^{n-1}r + ...$
But am not sure where to go from here. Should I do a proof by induction with base case $n=0$? I have a feeling induction is not necessary and this problem is easier than I think...
Edit: This question is different than the proposed duplicate because the "duplicate" does not use the binomial theorem method, which I must use. It uses a different method.