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I need help on finding the closed form for $(1)$. Partially I managed to find a part of it.

$$\int_{0}^{\pi}{\sin^{2k-1}(x)\over 1+\cos^2(x)}\mathrm dx=2^{k-2}\pi+F(k)\tag1$$

$k\ge1$

I only managed to work out for

k=1: ${\pi\over 2}$

k=2: $\pi- 2$

k=3: $2\pi-{16\over 3}$

k=4: $4\pi-{176\over 15}$

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    I just did a back-of-the-envelope computation, and it seems that if $I_k = \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\sin^{2k+1} x}{1 + \cos^2 x} \, dx$ then $$ \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} I_k z^{2k} = \frac{2}{1-2z^2} \left( \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{z}{\sqrt{1-z^2}} \arcsin z \right). $$ Since we know how to expand each function, this will give $F(k)$.2017-01-23

1 Answers 1

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$$I(k)=\int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{\sin(x)^{2k-1}}{1+\cos^2(x)}\,dx = 2\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac{\sin(x)^{2k-1}}{1+\cos^2(x)}\,dx=2\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac{\cos(x)^{2k-1}}{1+\sin(x)^2}\,dx$$ leads to: $$ I(k) = 2 \int_{0}^{1}\frac{(1-t^2)^{k-1}}{1+t^2}\,dt = 2\int_{0}^{1}\frac{(2-(1+t^2))^{k-1}}{1+t^2}\,dt $$ where: $$ (2-(1+t^2))^{k-1} = \sum_{j=0}^{k-1}\binom{k-1}{j}(1+t^2)^j (-1)^j 2^{k-1-j} $$ gives a way to put $I(k+1)-2\,I(k)$ in a simple closed form. We also have $$ \sum_{k\geq 1}I(k)\,z^{2k}=\int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{z^2\sin(x)}{1-z^2\sin(x)}\,dx =\frac{2z}{\sqrt{1-z^2}}\,\arctan\left(\frac{z}{\sqrt{1-z^2}}\right)$$ as suggested by Sangchul Lee, so the problem boils down to computing the Taylor series of $\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-z^2}}$ or $\arcsin(z)$ in a neighbourhood of the origin, simple through the extended binomial theorem.
One way or another we get: $$ \delta_k\stackrel{\text{def}}{=}I(k+1)-2\,I(k) = -\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\sin(x)^{2k-1}\,dx = -\frac{4^k}{k\binom{2k}{k}}$$ and $$\begin{eqnarray*} \delta_k + 2 \delta_{k-1} + 4\delta_{k-2}+\ldots +2^{k-1} \delta_{1} &=& I(k+1)-2^k I(1)\\&=&-\sum_{j=1}^{k}\frac{4^j 2^{k-j}}{j\binom{2j}{j}}\end{eqnarray*}$$ so: $$\boxed{ \int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{\sin(x)^{2k-1}}{1+\cos(x)^2}\,dx = \color{red}{\pi 2^{k-2}-\frac{1}{2}\sum_{j=1}^{k-1}\frac{2^{j+k}}{j\binom{2j}{j}}}. }$$ An interesting consequence is that the last identity proves $$ \sum_{j\geq 1}\frac{2^j}{j\binom{2j}{j}}=\frac{\pi}{2} $$ since $\lim_{k\to +\infty}I(k)=0$, obviously. By Laplace's method, $$ \boxed{\int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{\sin(x)^{2k-1}}{1+\cos(x)^2}\,dx \approx \color{red}{\frac{2\sqrt{\pi}}{\sqrt{4k+2}}}} $$ for large values of $k$.

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    Thank you @Jack. Lol. When I clicked the link I though I will enter into another maths site.2017-01-23
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    @Algebra: you're welcome.2017-01-23