I'm reading about direct sums of Hilbert spaces currently, and I've read that you have to supply certain restrictions on the vectors that can be an infinite direct sum of Hilbert spaces. So specifically:
Let $I$ be an arbitrary index set of cardinality at least $\aleph_0$, and let $\{\mathbb{H}_i\}_{i\in I}$ be a family of Hilbert spaces over a field $\mathbb{F}$. Then we write $$ \mathbb{H}\equiv\bigoplus_{i\in I}\mathbb{H}_i = \left\{(h_i)_{i\in I}\ |\ \forall i\ h_i\in\mathbb{H}_i\ \land\ \sum_{i\in I}\|h_i\|^2<\infty\right\} $$ and define $$ \left\langle(h_i),\ (g_i)\right\rangle_{\mathbb{H}} = \sum_{i\in I}\left\langle h_i,\ g_i\right\rangle_{\mathbb{H}_i} $$ so that $$ \|(h_i)\|_{\mathbb{H}}^2 = \sum_{i\in I}\|h_i\|_{\mathbb{H}_i}^2 $$
I'm not quite sure what to make of the extra condition that $\sum_{i\in I}\|h_i\|^2<\infty$, it just seems like an unnecessary condition. I completely understand that the condition implies that the inner product converges, but like, doesn't that mean that the sequence $H_n = \left(\frac1nh_1,\ \frac1nh_2,\ \cdots\right)$, where $h_i\in\mathbb{H}_i$ and $\|h_i\| = 1$, doesn't converge to $(0,\ 0,\ \cdots)$? Intuitively, it totally should, at least to me.
I'm having trouble formulating my difficulty understanding this, because the more I try to write the more I realize that my question basically amounts to "why not just let the inner product sometimes be infinite"? What does that break? Why can't we define convergence, or the inner product, in some other fashion? Is it just because this definition of the inner product follows naturally from the inner product of a finite direct sum of Hilbert spaces?