1
$\begingroup$

This question is created taking reference from this question. I am aware of Chinese remainder theorem and used that to solve problems of this type. However, answer given in the site referred uses a special property and I want to see how it is derived. Therefore, posting it as question here. I am rewriting the question and answer in a general form and I hope i am writing in the right way (note that my knowledge on modular arithmetic is limited).

Consider

$N \equiv r_1 \pmod {d_1}\\N \equiv r_2 \pmod {d_2}\\N \equiv r_3 \pmod {d_3}\\N \equiv r_4 \pmod {d_4}\\$

So, to find N, we can use Chinese remainder theorem. But, suppose

$d_1-r_1=d_2-r_2=d_3-r_3=d_4-r_4=k$

So, based on the answer provided in the referred site, the required number can be written as

$N = m \times LCM(d_1,d_2,d_3,d_4)-k$ where m is a positive integer

How this can be proven mathematically?


My attempt
I have rewritten it in the following form and was trying to solve.

$N=n_1d_1+r_1\\N=n_2d_2+r_2\\N=n_3d_3+r_3\\N=n_4d_4+r_4$

Let $LCM(d_1,d_2,d_3,d_4)=L$
Then

$N=L+r_1\\N=L+r_2\\N=L+r_3\\N=L+r_4$

please help.

  • 0
    You already know that $d_i \mid LCM(d_1,d_2,d_3,d_4)$, so what is $N\; mod\; d_i$?2017-01-22
  • 0
    By $N\text{ mod }d_i$ , you mean the remainder of $N/d_i$?2017-01-22

1 Answers 1

1

$\, N\!+\!k\equiv 0\pmod{\!d_i}\iff d_i\mid N\!+\!k\iff {\rm lcm}\{d_i\}\mid N\!+\!k\iff N\equiv -k\pmod{{\rm lcm}\{d_i\}}$

Or, equivalently: $\,\ N\equiv -k\pmod{d_i}\iff N\equiv -k\pmod{{\rm lcm}\{d_i\}},\, $ which expresses it as a ubiquitous constant-case optimization of the Chinese Remainder Theorem (CRT).

  • 0
    the symbol, $d_i|N+k$ means, $d_i$ is divisible by $(N+k)$, right?2017-01-24
  • 1
    @Kiran The reverse. $\ a\mid b\,$ means $\,a\,$ divides $\,b,\,$ i.e. $\, n a = b\,$ for some integer $\,n.\,$ This is standard notation in number theory. You can find many examples in the linked posts.2017-01-24
  • 0
    ok, thanks for clarifying.2017-01-24
  • 0
    your answer is really helpful. thanks. i am now learning more about number theory through this website.2017-01-24
  • 1
    @Kiran Generally if we can arithmetically "tweak" the $r_i$ so they all become the same then we have found a solution. Above we tweaked them by negating them all and noticing they all are the same, i.e. $\, -N\equiv -r_i\equiv k\pmod{d_i}.\,$2017-01-24