How can I show that there cannot be a function $\delta$ such that $\int_{-1}^1f(x)\delta(x)\,dx = f(0)$ (in particular $f(x)\delta(x)$ is Riemann integrable on $[-1, 1]$) for every $f$ continuous on $[-1,1]$?
So far I've figured out that if $\delta$ were to exist, then $\int_{-1}^1\delta(x)\,dx = 1$ and $\int_{-1}^1f(x)\delta(x)\,dx= \int_{-1}^1f(0)\delta(x)\,dx$ for all $f$. Can I somehow produce a contradiction (for example, show that $\delta$ is unbounded, or show that it is zero everywhere except the origin, etc.)? Is there some other fact about $\delta$ that I can deduce which will lead me to a contradiction?