I tried to solve this problem using the Mean Value Theorem but didn't get very far. This question appeared in my calculus exam and I still can't solve it. Any thoughts?
Thank you.
I tried to solve this problem using the Mean Value Theorem but didn't get very far. This question appeared in my calculus exam and I still can't solve it. Any thoughts?
Thank you.
Let $g(x)=f(x)-x^2$ then $g$ is differentiable with $$g(0)=f(0)-0^2=0$$ and $$g(1)=f(1)-1^2=0$$ thus according to the Mean Value Theorem there exists $0<\color{red}{c}<1$ such that $g'(\color{red}{c})=0$ but $g'(x)=f'(x)-2x$ and then $f'(\color{red}{c})-2\color{red}{c}=0$ , finally $f'(\color{red}{c})=2\color{red}{c}$.