1
$\begingroup$

I tried to solve this problem using the Mean Value Theorem but didn't get very far. This question appeared in my calculus exam and I still can't solve it. Any thoughts?

Thank you.

  • 1
    **Hint:** Look at $f(x)-x^2$ and use Rolle's theorem.2017-01-22
  • 0
    Thanks! how did you come up with f(x)-x^2?2017-01-22
  • 0
    Those equations are usually transferred to a root-finding problem, i.e. $f'(x_0)-2x_0 = 0$. This makes it easier to find solutions. Then i realized that the left side is the derivative of $f(x)-x^2$.2017-01-22
  • 0
    @LeBtz Thanks a lot that was pretty helpful!2017-01-22

1 Answers 1

1

Let $g(x)=f(x)-x^2$ then $g$ is differentiable with $$g(0)=f(0)-0^2=0$$ and $$g(1)=f(1)-1^2=0$$ thus according to the Mean Value Theorem there exists $0<\color{red}{c}<1$ such that $g'(\color{red}{c})=0$ but $g'(x)=f'(x)-2x$ and then $f'(\color{red}{c})-2\color{red}{c}=0$ , finally $f'(\color{red}{c})=2\color{red}{c}$.

  • 0
    @LeBtz Yes. Thanks.2017-01-22