We solve a PDE of $U(t, x, y)$ using finite difference method with following relation: $$\left(1 - \dfrac{k}{2}\Delta_x^2\right)\left(1 - \dfrac{k}{2}\Delta_y^2\right)U^{n+1}_{ij} = \left(1 + \dfrac{k}{2}\Delta_x^2\right)\left(1 + \dfrac{k}{2}\Delta_y^2\right)U^{n}_{ij}$$
but the book says the computational form as follow to be easy to solve
\begin{eqnarray}
&&\left(1 - \dfrac{k}{2}\Delta_x^2\right)U^{*}_{ij} = \left(1 + \dfrac{k}{2}\Delta_x^2\right)\left(1 + \dfrac{k}{2}\Delta_y^2\right)U^{n}_{ij}\\
&&\left(1 - \dfrac{k}{2}\Delta_y^2\right)U^{n+1}_{ij} = U^{*}_{ij}
\end{eqnarray}
Here $U^n_{ij}$ is that difference $t$ as $n$ with length $k,$ $x,y$ with $i,j$ with length $h.$ And $$\Delta_x^2 U_{ij} = h^{-2}(U_{i+1,j} - 2U_{i,j} + U_{i-1,j})$$ $$\Delta_y^2 U_{ij} = h^{-2}(U_{i,j+1} - 2U_{i,j} + U_{i,j-1})$$
My question is why do we need the computational form instead of the first version i.e it is easy in where?