I don't really know how to approach this, I've tried using $u=1/z$ to get that those integrals are simply $$\oint_{\left|z\right|=1} (z+z^2)\cos(\sin (1/z)) dz = -\oint_{\left|u\right|=1} (1/u+1/z^2)\cos(\sin (u)) (-du/u^2) = $$ $$= \oint_{\left|u\right|=1} 1/u^3(1+1/u)\cos(\sin (u))du$$ And then use the Residue Theorem to get the integral using that you can get those residues by taking the limits on the poles at 0. But i don't know if this is either rigorous or quicker than some other way. Because for example, for the integral of $1/u^4 \cos(\sin(u))$ i would have to derive cos(sin(u)) three times. What if it were $\oint_{\left|z\right|=1} z^6\cos(\sin (1/z)) dz$? Eight times? That's crazy if so...
Thanks in advance for any ideas or advices.