If you allow uncountably many formulas, then as Henning Makholm points out, it can be done. If you only allow finite many formulas (or equivalently, a single formula by concatenating all of them), then, interpreting your question as
"Can every subset of $\mathbb R^2$ be defined by a formula in which you allow reals as parameters?
then it is one of those 'typical' set-theoretic questions which can't be answered using our axioms of set theory¹. We cannot prove that there exists such an "undefinable" set, and we cannot prove that no such set exists¹.
¹ This is strictly speaking not correct, as it relies on the consistency of so-called measurable cardinals, which again cannot be proven. However, it seems to me that the majority of set theorists believe this to be true.