Let
- $\lambda$ denote the Lebesgue measure on $\mathbb R$
- $T>0$ and $I:=(0,T)$
- $E$ be a $\mathbb R$-Banach space
- $f\in L^1(I,E)$
The most cited version of the Lebesgue differentiation theorem yields that $$\tilde f(t)=\lim_{h\to0}\frac1h\int_t^{t+h}f(s)\:{\rm d}s\;\;\;\text{for }\lambda\text{-almost all }t\in I\tag1$$ for any representative $\tilde f$ of $f$.
Now, I'm curious whether
- the limit on the right-hand side exists for all $t\in I$. In that case, the statement could be rephrased in the following way: $f$ has a representative $\tilde f$ with $$\tilde f(t)=\lim_{h\to0}\frac1h\int_t^{t+h}f(s)\:{\rm d}s\;\;\;\text{for all }t\in I\;.\tag2$$
- the statement can even been shown, if $f$ is only in $L_{\text{loc}}^1(I,E)$.